If a man reduces the selling price of a fan from 400 to 380 his loss increases by 20% .What is the cost price of fan

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Mubeen

  • Jul 2nd, 2005
 

The question should be "the loss increases to 20%" and not "loss increases by 20%" as these two have two completely different meaning. 
the former has an answer of 500  
where as the latter is undeterminable as a 20 decrease to produce 20% loss, cost has to be 100.

kavita kanyal

  • Jul 7th, 2005
 

Question is right:- 
 
Ans : 500 
 
previous loss = x-400 ( while selling price is 400) 
 
while selling price is 380: 
loss = x-380 
 
%age of loss increased = 
( 2nd loss - 1st loss)*100/(1st loss) 
=> (x-380-x+400)*100/(x-400)=20 
=> 20*100/(x-400)=20 
=> 100=x-400 
=>x=500 

advitiya garg

  • Jan 27th, 2006
 

Answer is 600

process

when x is purchasing price

1. loss=x-400

2. loss*120/100=x-360

calculate both two

(x-400) *120/100=x-360

5x-1800 =6x -2400

ans x=600

Cross checking

if x=600

than when sell price is 400

than loss = 200/600*100=33.33 %

when sell price is 360

then loss = 240/600*100=40 %

Increased % loss= 40-33.33/33.33*100= 20 %

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Green_bean

  • Feb 9th, 2006
 

First, set cost and profit loss to be x and y respectively.x+y=400 ----(1),if selling price=380, then profit loss is increased by 20% (1.2*y),hence, x+1.2y=380 -------(2).solve (1) and (2)x=500

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pkaneria

  • Mar 25th, 2006
 

we have (c-380) = 1.2 * (c-400) which gives

0.2 c = 1.2 * 400 - 380 = 480 - 380 = 100

therefore c= 100 * 5 = 500, where c = cost of the fan.

to verify,

loss at 380 = 500 - 380 = 120

loss at 400 = 100.

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sandeepy

  • Jul 24th, 2006
 

no guys its 50/0.2=500/2=250.......plz check it out........

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balaganesh k

  • Nov 10th, 2006
 

Say   400=500-100

         380=  X -120

         380+120 =x

          X =500

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neha

  • Mar 28th, 2007
 

THE ANSWER WILL BE 475

If an article is sold at the loss of 20% , then S.P = 80% of C.P

S.P = 380

Now,

380 = 80/100 * C.P

380 *100/80 = C.P

THEREFORE, C.P = 475

ARPIT

  • Mar 28th, 2007
 

LOOK GUYS
WE KNOW THAT
AFTER REDUCING PRICE OF FAN FROM 400-380 HE GET A LOSS OF 20%,
SO
WE GET LOSS OF 20% ON 380
SO
380+20% OF 380=456


ANS = 456

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gurjot

  • Apr 4th, 2007
 

u got it wrong man..
the question says that on decreasing the sp from 400 to 380 the loss is increased by 20%... its not that the loss at selling price 380 is 20%

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Sreenivas

  • Apr 4th, 2007
 

@ mubeen


look at the question properly. he's selling the fan and the selling price is reduced so obviously it means that his loss % sud be increased there. so ans is 500

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Harish A

  • Apr 17th, 2007
 

Guys,

Old selling price : 400 Rs

New Selling Price : 380 Rs

Loss increased is 20%

Difference in amts : 20 rs(400 - 380)

for 20 rs 20% loss means its 1 % per rupee.

so the actual cost of the fan is 100 rs.


Reverse validate : Selling price : 400 i.e 400/100 = 400%
                              New Price : 380 i.e. 380/100 = 380%
                              % of loss increased : 20%
                         Please let know if this is wrong

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anju_garg

  • May 3rd, 2007
 

let CP=x
           20% of x=(x/100)*20=x/5

        Therefore
          400-380 = x/5
then         x=100

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Arthi

  • Jul 19th, 2007
 

Hai Harish
I can agree your method half the way. On my point of view,

Old selling price : 400 Rs

New Selling Price : 380 Rs
Loss increased is 20%
Difference in amts : 20 rs(400 - 380)
for 20 Rs 20% loss means its 1 % per rupee.
So right now he is selling the goods at, "no profit no loss" means actual price of Rs.400.
When he sells the goods at Rs.380 He is getting 20% loss.

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sameer2386

  • Jul 20th, 2007
 

Q is  If a man reduces the selling price of a fan from 400 to 380 his loss increases by 20% .What is the cost price of fan?


it means that add 20 % to 380
we get 456

means actual price is 456 & by getting lossed selling price is 380 (means Rs 76 (20% of 456) minused from 456)

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srinivasan

  • Jul 26th, 2007
 

The answer 500 is correct.

Initially he sold for 400, thats the time when he had some loss let it be x Ok.

Now when he started selling at 380... he had 20% increment in his loss ie loss is increased as x+(x/100)*x -> this is the current loss.

The diff in amount that he sold is rs. 20 ie the loss of 20 % occurs when he reduces 20 Rs.

ie the loss per Rs. 1 is 1% because the ratio of percentage over amount is 1 ie 20/20.

Initially he is in loss when he sold at Rs. 400, so actuall cost is greater than 400.

5 times of the 20% is 100.

5 times of rs. 20 is Rs. 100. !e 100% of loss is 100

When he sold the fan of 400+100 he has no loss because 100% of loss is reduced.

so actual cost is 500.

Simplified

Diff in amount 20 of 20 % loss

ie 100 of 100% loss

Amount + 100 is the actual cost.

400 + 100 = 500 so 500 is the actual cost.

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diwkar

  • Aug 7th, 2007
 

Answer is 500.
Because loss is 20% for 20/- of cost it mean that he will get profit around 100/-
Actuall cost he sold is 400/-
so actuall selling price + profit=original price;
400+100=500;

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dhiraz

  • Aug 11th, 2007
 

C.P=(100/(100-loss%))*S.P
so,
we have
c.p=(100/(100-20))*100
     =(100*400)/80
     =500

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gpselvaganesh

  • Aug 19th, 2007
 

Hi Arthi,

According to me before solving the question we have to understand that the followings.

1. LOSS MEANS WHEN COST PRICE IS MORE THAN SELLING PRICE.

2. LOSS INCREASES BY 20% MEANS DIFFERENCE BETWEEN NEW LOSS AND OLD LOSS HAS BEEN INCREASED BY 20% ON OLD LOSS.

  FOR EXAMPLE: IF YOU ARE GETTING RS.10 LOSS IN DAY 1 AND GETTING RS.12 LOSS IN DAY 2, LOSS INCREASES BY 20% ON DAY 2.

 Now, we can come into problem.

  Here loss increases by 20% when decreasing of selling price by Rs.20. 

      Rs.20 = 20%.  So old loss is Rs.100/-. old selling price Rs.400+old loss Rs.100= Cost of the goods i.e.Rs.500/-

So close this question and we can go for some other questions

bye!

P.Selvaganesh


     
 


   
  
 

  

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sachin

  • Oct 29th, 2007
 

When loss is there

cost price-selling price=loss

C-400=L .........1
C-380=1.2L.....2
SOLVING SIMULTANEOUS EQUATION 1&2

20=0.2L
L=100

COST PRICE=100+400=500

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muhammedkareem321

  • Feb 2nd, 2010
 

Your attempt is good. But I got a different answer, pls go through my findings

Basic formula is,
Sales Price - Cost Price= Profit ------( standard Formula)
Since it is a loss, the equation changes to,

CP - SP= - Loss   ------------( Equation 1 )

Given as,

SP: 380,

CP: 20% of SP+ SP= 380+20%

 ==> 20% of 380 = 380*20/100 ==> 76

i.e ->CP= 380+76=456

Apply this value to Equation (1),

 456 - 380 = -76

Therefore the  CP must be 456.

Kindly note that assumed the first lost was x % and reached 20% when SP come from 400 to 380.


Thanks
Muhammed Kareem

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parveen pandit

  • Mar 18th, 2010
 

Let C.P be Rs x &  Loss be y%
then as per question,

x =   100  * 400  or,   100x - xy = 40000  ---(1)
       100-y

x =   100  * 380  or,    80x  - xy = 38000  ---(2)
      100-(y+20)

Solving for (1) & (2), we get
x = 100
Hence C.P = Rs 100

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Jitendra Chaudhary

  • Mar 21st, 2015
 

500

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sourav

  • Nov 18th, 2017
 

Its price should be reduced to 300 then it will work

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AASISH KRISHNAN V T

  • Mar 5th, 2019
 

20%=20/100 = 1/5 .so 5 become 6 (5+1) when 400 decreases to 380 that is 20 rupees loss
6-5 =1 . the value of 1 is 20 rupees so value of 5 is 5*20 = 100 rupees ,so first he incurred a loss of 100 rupees
Then cp = 400+ 100 = 500

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